Andrey (azangru) wrote,

A page from a very readable A History of the English Language, by Norman Blake:

What's puzzling to me is his insistence that "aspirated voiced stops [from proto-indo-european] appear in Latin as voiced fricatives", which he repeats in the schematic below (as change 1), although all his examples show voiceless fricatives. I can understand an accidental slip of the pen/typewriter once — once is happenstance — but twice?

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