Andrey (azangru) wrote,
Andrey
azangru

A page from a very readable A History of the English Language, by Norman Blake:



What's puzzling to me is his insistence that "aspirated voiced stops [from proto-indo-european] appear in Latin as voiced fricatives", which he repeats in the schematic below (as change 1), although all his examples show voiceless fricatives. I can understand an accidental slip of the pen/typewriter once — once is happenstance — but twice?
Subscribe

  • (no subject)

    (retweeted by a developer) How does she interpret what she has highlighted — "unlawful blocking of a public street" — as "pedestrians whose…

  • (no subject)

    Google has finally become ready to promote its Lit ecosystem properly. I thought they were going make their announcements at the coming Google IO;…

  • (no subject)

    Is it ... Bill Maher? Is he, in the penetrating eyes of this insightful lady, the emblem of white supremacy now? The comments to the tweet say it…

  • Post a new comment

    Error

    default userpic
    When you submit the form an invisible reCAPTCHA check will be performed.
    You must follow the Privacy Policy and Google Terms of use.
  • 0 comments